Disclaimer:This query is not to offend CA/Financial advisors. Just would like to
understand underlying theory or reason.

I had been talking abt tax filing to my friend, he said his CA charges him fees
as % from the returns amount and also said he does it with CA cos they will help
him to get some returns surely. By now I have heard it from atleast 20+ ppl
across different places and have 2 questions

1. Assume person has made investments and has returns. In that case isn't it
unfair to take fees as % of returns when the work did for filing is almost same
for 8/10 cases ?

2. Assume person has not made any investments but still he gets returns and CA
takes % as fees from that . In this case isn't it illegal on both their sides to
do this?

I wanted to understand if am missing any underlying complexity here. I
understand ppl don't do it themselves citing varuous reasons which in itself is
a separate discussion. For this post I would like to understand for above two
queries alone.



Posted by Giri Thiyagarajan on Facebook
link: facebook.com/groups/147164928687742/user/100001365107994/